Do modern performers have the freedom to interpret music of the past in ways that the original composers may not have intended?

In modern music performance, there is a school of thought that music should be performed exactly as intended by the composer called “Historically Informed Performance”.

This includes the notion of only using instruments and techniques that were available to the composer at the time the work was composed.

Do modern performers have the freedom to interpret music of the past in ways that the original composers may not have intended? May we use modern instruments?

Place operas in modern settings? Use female voices when male voices would have been used? Provide a clear defense for your position. If you consult outside sources, provide proper citation.

Submission must be at least 2 full pages of text (not including header), double spaced, 12 point font (Times New Roman , please), standard margins.

Submissions will be reviewed by Blackboard’s plagiarism checker “Safe Assign” against internet sources and other student’s work.

Any submission rated 10% or higher without proper source citation will be subject to failing upon review by the professor.

Do modern performers have the freedom to interpret music of the past in ways that the original composers may not have intended?
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